If Testosterone Peaks In My 20s, Why Am I Now Losing Hair at 40?

My question is about the link between DHT, testosterone, aging and hair loss.

If DHT levels are related to testosterone levels, and testosterone peaks at about age 18-22, how do we explain a hairline that does not even begin to recede until age 40? Does DHT increase with age? Do follicles become more sensitive to DHT with age? Is hair loss that begins at an older age caused by something other than DHT?

I will be turning 40. Up until about 1.5 years ago, my hair was very full – no signs of loss at all. Since then, it has gradually receded above the temples and it feels a little thinner on top. I’m not interested in Rogaine or Propecia, but I would like to understand what’s happening.

If you are losing hair (in a pattern), you probably have genetic balding. It generally happens in the early 20’s to the 30’s, but there are always exceptions to the rule (and it can happen in your 40’s and 50’s). In my opinion, it does not have to correlate with the levels of DHT, because it is programmed in your genes… and your genes will express your balding pattern as it was programmed to do. You can have very high levels of DHT and never go bald if you do not have the genes. Or you can have very low levels of DHT and still go bald because you do have the genes.

In the end, the best treatment for genetic balding in men is finasteride tablets daily to slow or stop the loss as long as possible (for those men with the genes for balding, so that DHT can be minimized). If you are not interested in the medical option (Rogaine/Propecia), then the surgical option would be hair transplants to address the corner recession.