What happens if I increase the cost of finasteride, will it be more effective?
I found this graph on the blog site. I am not sure of the source nor the accuracy, but it does somewhat address your question and explains much of what I know about the drug fnasteride. When Merck did the initial clinical trials, they were trying to determine what the best and most effective dose of finastride (Porpecia) would be and then, of course, what they would recommend. They found that doses greater than 1 mg, on average, did not increase the value of the drug on hair loss. They also found that when half the dose was used, that the value was 80% as good as the full dose. Going down in dose as well to 0.25 mgs would have half of the value, so I think that this curve is somewhat correct. At least it does explain why some people can get an impact on a lower dose. But Merck recommended 1 mg because it produced the best effect on MOST people.
that’s a shit of blog. always propecia and more shit. Pathetic. Do you understand? Ok.
Interesting. I wonder what the source of that chart is. Does that imply that taking 5mg for treating a benign enlarged prostate is a waste of time and 1mg would be equally as effective ? Also I have often wondered about the exact relationship between DHT and libido, whether the relationship is linear or there is some sort of threshold effect. It might be better for many people to take a dose of say 0.5mg when all things are considered. One other curious point is that some people who have taken finasteride for male pattern baldness have still gone on to develop an enlarged prostate ! How could this be ?