I understand that hair loss is understood to be a dominant trait. I also understand that men can be homogeneous dominant or heterogeneous. Would it be fair to say that main with homogenous genes are the ones to lose their hair early? say in their 20s and 30s, while men who are only heterogeneous dominant lose their hair later in age? say their 40s and 50s, I was just curious because I figured that maybe men who have a double gene are the ones more likely to have severe hair loss. Or does it not matter either way?
Hair loss is not a dominant trait. If so, a bald man’s sons will all be bald — which is not the case. What you are describing is a classic Mendelian type of genetic inheritance. The expression of the genetic factors also often skip generations. The hair loss gene(s) is not so simple to categorize and no one really knows how many genes are involved with hair loss.