Hi Dr. Rassman,
Many thanks for the detailed and trustworthy information you offer your readers. It is a true resource amidst the unreliable heresay elsewhere.
I am a 29 y.o. male — I started Propecia 1mg 4 years ago and it worked great until this summer when my hair started falling out quickly. My doctor increased my dosage to 1.67mg, which I filled with generic finasteride at Target(thank you again for pointing out the great deal there). It has only been a month, but I am hopeful it will work again.
Recently, my regular dermatologist (not the prescriber) asked whether the pill I am taking is scored and evenly distributed. I inquired with the pharmacist who said it was not scored and likely not evenly distributed. He knew of no generic finasteride that is.
What are your thoughts on the effectiveness of taking 1/3 of a tablet that I am not sure is evenly distributed. I looked in the archives and was able to dig this up, but it seems like the answer was inconclusive at the time and I am wondering if anything changed. It also dealt with Proscar, not generic finastertide.
Thanks so much
I am not an expert on drug mixing, but I believe that the various ingredients are homogenized, so as it is made into a pill there’s no irregularities in the mix. If the ingredients were irregularly mixed at a pill level, then in theory it could be irregular from pill to pill… and I’m not sure if the FDA would allow that. I’m not well versed in pharmaceutical manufacturing policies, though.
As for taking the 1.67mg finasteride, if that is what your physician prescribed you, I’m not going to argue with that. There have been times where I’ve increased the dosage recommendation for individual patients if they notice hair loss accelerating after being on Propecia for years.